Dryden’s essay discusses the notion of Imitation as proposed by Mr. Cowley. The author explains in his interpretation of the concept that imitation is the translator’s decision to write similar to that of a previous writer. The emphasis is not placed on translating the meaning of the words; rather, they consider the previous work as a “Patern” and then aim to devise the piece, as he would have. Can we then consider imitation to be a form of translation? What about paraphrase? If a piece does not elicit the same meaning as the original version, are they still considered equals?
My name is Kendall Hughes and I am a senior at Bucknell University. I am a Psychology and Sociology major. I have taken French courses since my freshman year of high school. I also lived abroad in Germany for two years. I am interested in translation studies because I would like to further understand culture differences and how language can contribute to a barrier of understanding among people. View all posts by Kendall Hughes